C9520-427 IBM Digital Experience 8.5 Fundamentals

Number of questions: 64
Number of questions to pass: 43
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live

Exam 427: IBM Digital Experience 8.5 Fundamentals

Exam Competencies
Exam Type: Multiple Choice

Section 1: IBM WebSphere Portal 48%
Understand IBM WebSphere Portal offerings
Identify the prerequisites
Understand the unsupported/deprecated features
Understand IBM WebSphere Portal version coexistence
Discuss architecture concepts
Understand integration with other products
Understand Performance considerations
Install IBM Installation Manager
Install IBM WebSphere Application Server
Install IBM WebSphere Portal
Install upgrades/fixes
Configure IBM WebSphere Portal for databases
Set up security
Understand the ability to troubleshoot simple issues
Understand responsive design
Discuss the usage of WebDAV within IBM WebSphere Portal
Understand the high-level migration paths
Enable Single Sign-On
Understand Web Application Bridge use case
Understand Unified Task List portlet
Understand the capabilities of Portal Search
Describe managed pages
Understand the Theme Analyzer
Deploy Portal profiles and communities
Understand Virtual Portal use cases and best practices
Understand the concepts of a cluster
Understand deployment strategies using ReleaseBuilder
Work with community pages
Understand integration with analytics tools
Understand IBM Worklight Integration with IBM WebSphere Portal

Section 2: IBM Web Content Manager 25%
Understand content creation
Create a new page
Edit current page
Understand the content template catalog
Understand Syndication basics
Understand WebDAV basics
Work with Digital Data Connector
Work with Web Content Viewer portlets
Understand workflows
Understand Categorization
Understand Tagging
Enable multilingual sites with MLS
Understand troubleshooting options for content issues with the WCM Tools portlet

Section 3: IBM Web Experience Factory 14%
Understand the concept of builders
Understand visual designer
Understand model wizards
Import/Export IBM Web Experience Factory Archives
Understand how WEF can connect to a database
Debug a Web Experience Factory application
Understand manual and automated deployment
Understand creation of secure web apps with Web Experience Factory
Understand mobile enablement of an application

Section 4: IBM Forms 6%
Identify pre-requisites
Understand the concept of Extension points (IFX, API, Servlets, Portlets)
Understand Install Forms Server
Understand integration possibilities

Section 5: IBM Forms Experience Builder 6%
Understand FEB Design Functions
Identify pre-requisites
Understand integration and extension points (Understand the concept of REST API, Services, Custom Transports, JavaScript)
Understand Manage/Use Tab Function (duplicate/Deploy/History/View Response)
This exam has an Assessment Exam option: A9520-427 Assessment: IBM Digital Experience 8.5 Fundamentals

Assessment exams are web-based exams that provides you, at a cheaper costs, the ability to check your skills before taking the certification exam.

This assessment exam is available in: English
Passing the exam does not award you a certification, and it is only used to help you assess if you are ready or not to take the certification exam.

You can register for it at Pearson VUE and it will provide you a score report, showing you how you did in each section.

IBM Collaboration Solutions highly recommends using a variety of resources to prepare for certification exams. During your preparation, it is important that you review the exam objectives periodically to make sure that all of the material in the exam objectives is covered in your choice of preparation methods. It should be noted that there is not a one-to-one correspondence between these preparation methods and the exam.

Review the exam objectives to see the complete listing of possible topics for the exam. Use this as your checklist to determine your strengths and those areas where you will need to focus more attention in your studies and preparation. This information also includes recommend prerequisite skills and knowledge.

Actual hands-on experience is a critical component in preparing for the exam. Direct application of the skills learned cannot be substituted by any one other resource listed here. You must spend time using the product and applying the skills learned. The exam is looking to measure how well you know how to perform tasks, not how well you memorize features and functions.
Product Documentation

IBM Forms Documentation
This page provides an entry point to product information about IBM Forms. Use the links in the Table of Contents to find documentation for specific versions and editions of this product family. Generated links to developerWorks, Redbooks, and white papers are also provided when articles about the product are available. On this page, you can find entry points to sites that help you learn more about this product and other IBM products. There are also links to web sites that help you find support and stay current.

IBM Web Experience Factory 8.5 documentation
IBM Web Experience Factory creates applications with rich, interactive digital experiences for delivery on desktop browsers, smartphones, tablets, and IBM Worklight. This rapid application development tool enables developers to build custom web portlets, widgets, and applications for IBM WebSphere Portal, IBM Worklight, and IBM WebSphere Application Server environments.

Exceptional Digital Experience: IBM WebSphere Portal and IBM Web Content Manager 8.5 Documentation

Welcome to the documentation for IBM's Exceptional Digital Experience. Find information about how to install, maintain, and use: IBM Web Content Manager, IBM WebSphere Portal, and IBM WebSphere Portal Enable for z/OS.

IBM WebSphere Portal Express Documentation
This page provides an entry point to product information about WebSphere Portal Express. Use the links in the Table of Contents to find documentation for specific versions and editions of this product family. Generated links to developerWorks, Redbooks, and white papers are also provided when articles about the product are available. On this page, you can find entry points to sites that help you learn more about this product and other IBM products. There are also links to web sites that help you find support and stay current.

IBM Case Manager Documentation
This page provides an entry point to product information about Case Manager. Use the links in the Table of Contents to find documentation for specific versions and editions of this product family. Generated links to developerWorks, Redbooks, and white papers are also provided when articles about the product are available. On this page, you can find entry points to sites that help you learn more about this product and other IBM products. There are also links to web sites that help you find support and stay current.

WebSphere Application Server, Network Deployment, V8.5.5 documentation
View the latest WebSphere Application Server, Network Deployment documentation. This information applies to Version 8.5.5 and to all subsequent releases and modifications until otherwise indicated in new editions.

WebSphere Application Server V8.5 Concepts, Planning and Design Guide
IBM WebSphere Application Server is the leading software foundation for service-oriented architecture (SOA) applications and services for your enterprise. With IBM WebSphere Application Server, you can build business-critical enterprise applications and solutions, and combine them with innovative new functions. The WebSphere Application Server family includes and supports a range of products that helps you develop and serve your business applications. You can use these products to build, deploy, and manage dynamic websites and other more complex solutions productively and effectively.

Overview
PartnerWorld Code: 14012001
Replaces PW Code: Not Applicable

Status: Live
An IBM Certified Associate - Digital Experience 8.5 is an individual with entry-level knowledge and experience with IBM WebSphere Portal, IBM Web Content Manager, IBM Web Experience Factory, IBM Forms, and IBM Forms Experience Builder. This individual is knowledgeable about the fundamental concepts of these products through either hands-on experience or formal and informal education. The associate should have an in-depth knowledge of the basic to intermediate tasks required in day-to-day use of the following products:

IBM WebSphere Portal
IBM Web Content Manager
IBM Web Experience Factory
IBM Forms
IBM Forms Experience Builder

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
It is recommended that candidates have the following knowledge before beginning to prepare for this certification:

Working knowledge of IBM WebSphere Application Server, IBM WebSphere Portal, Java Enterprise Edition technologies, web servers, and Eclipse
Working knowledge of client-side browser technologies
Working knowledge of OS, networking, and firewall concepts
Basic knowledge of security (SSL, data encryption)
Basic knowledge of supported database software
Basic knowledge of protocols including HTTP, LDAP
Basic knowledge of problem determination

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QUESTION 1
What wp_profile_root/PortalServer/bin scripts generate WebSphere Portal version and history information?

A. WPVersion.Info.[sh/bat] and WPHistoryInfo.[sh/bat]
B. ReleaseBuilder.[sh/bat] and ConfigEngine.[sh/bat]
C. WPVersion.Info.[sh/bat] and ReleaseBuilder.[sh/bat]
D. genVersionReport[sh/bat] and ReleaseBuilder.[sh/bat]

Answer: C

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QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about virtual portals?

A. They share a database.
B. They run in separate JVMs.
C. They must have separate user populations.
D. They must all have the same administrators.

Answer: C
Reference: https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSYJ99_8.5.0/adminsystem/advppln_mgupop.dita

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QUESTION 3
Which option does a developer use to create an exceptional web experience that is optimized across multiple devices?

A. dynamic data control (DDC)
B. wired equivalent policy (WEP)
C. responsive web design (RWD)
D. work progress administration (WPA)

Answer: C
Reference: http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/library/mo-aim1308-worklight-portal-v6-1/
(responsive web design)

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QUESTION 4
What is one operating system that IBM Forms Experience Builder is supported on?

A. IBM i
B. HP-UX
C. Solaris
D. IBM AIX

Answer: D
Reference: http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg27042363

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QUESTION 5
Which is the first step in installing the multilingual extensions?

A. Run the deployment command ConfigEngine.sh deploy-wcm-mls.
B. Run the registration command ConfigEngine.sh register-wcm-mls.
C. Run the update member fixer command ConfigEngine.sh run-wcm-admin-task-member-fixer.
D. Ensure that the WasPassword and PortalAdminPwd paswords are set in the wkplc.properties file.

Answer: B

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C9510-418 IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V9.0 Core Administration

Number of questions: 65
Number of questions to pass: 44
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live

This exam consists of 9 sections described below.

Section 1: Install and update the environment 14%
Apply maintenance to the product
Demonstrate an understanding of the IBM Installation Manager and IBM Packaging Utility and its role in installing, configuring, and maintaining IBM WebSphere Application Servers and components both locally and remotely.
Perform a silent installation for IBM WebSphere Application Server and fix pack installations.
Perform post-installation verification.
Troubleshoot installation problems.
Backup and restore the configuration including the use of checkpoints

Section 2: Create a high availability configuration 9%
Create multi-node topology and appropriate high availability model.
Manage nodes in an IBM WebSphere Application Server topology.
Configure and manage the HTTP server and the web server plug-in for high availability.
Configure distributed session management for high availability and failover scenarios.

Section 3: Configure security 17%
Configure user repositories.
Configure SSL for clients and servers.
Implement multiple security domains.
Apply administrative and application security roles.
Configure different authentication and authorization mechanisms.
Configure Java Enterprise, Web and Web Services Security.

Section 4: Monitor and tune the environment 9%
Use performance tooling to monitor the IBM WebSphere Application Server runtime.
Tune parameters that affect IBM WebSphere Application Server performance.
Use the Performance Monitoring Infrastructure (PMI) metrics and poll MBeans for performance data.
Configure and monitor the WebSphere Application Server caching mechanisms.

Section 5: Troubleshoot post-installation problems 11%
Enable High Performance Extensible Logging (HPEL) and view HPEL data.
Enable Cross Component Trace (XCT) and view trace data in XCT Log Viewer.
Use tools to trigger and analyze heap dumps, javacore dumps, system core dumps and verbose Garbage Collection (GC).
Use "mustgather" documentation and/or the IBM Support Assistant to collect and analyze diagnostic data or submit data to IBM Support.
Configure, review and analyze log files for the following: First Failure Data Capture (FFDC), system logs, native logs, and trace logs.

Section 6: Administer and configure the environment 20%
Connect databases.
Create and manage Full profiles.
Configure resources.
Illustrate the usage of the Integrated Solutions Console.
Use the capabilities of the Job Manager tooling.
Configure or modify an IBM WebSphere Application Server environment by using properties files and/or the monitored directory feature.
Configure an external HTTP server for the environment.
Use the standard set of command line tools to perform administrative tasks.

Section 7: Configure Intelligent Management features 6%
Use the dynamic cluster elasticity feature.
Create and configure On Demand Routers (ODR) and the ODR plug-in and associated service policies to enable the dynamic operations.
Use health policies and actions to monitor and react to changing performance in the environment.
Configure and maintain application editions.

Section 8: Demonstrate an understanding of a multi-tier environment 6%
Identify the components and services in an IBM WebSphere Application Server configuration and describe how they are related or interact.
Demonstrate an understanding of how requests traverse various WebSphere Application Server ND topologies.

Section 9: Deploy and administer applications 8%
Perform partial updates of enterprise applications, web applications, and business level applications.
Deploy applications to an IBM WebSphere Application Server environment.

The sample test is designed to give the candidate an idea of the content and format of the questions that will be on the certification exam. Performance on the sample test is NOT an indicator of performance on the certification exam. This should not be considered an assessment tool.

This exam has an Assessment Exam option: A9510-418 Assessment: IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V9.0 Core Administration

Assessment exams are web-based exams that provides you, at a cheaper costs, the ability to check your skills before taking the certification exam.

Passing the exam does not award you a certification, and it is only used to help you assess if you are ready or not to take the certification exam.

You can register for it at Pearson VUE and it will provide you a score report, showing you how you did in each section.

IBM recommends using a variety of resources to prepare for certification exams. During your preparation, it is important that you review the exam objectives periodically to make sure that all the material in the exam objectives is covered in your choice of preparation methods. It should be noted that there is not a one-to-one correspondence between these preparation methods and the exam.

Review the exam objectives to see the complete listing of possible topics for the exam. Use this as your checklist to determine your strengths and those areas where you will need to focus more attention in your studies and preparation. This information also includes recommend prerequisite skills and knowledge.

Actual hands-on experience is a critical component in preparing for the exam. Direct application of the skills learned cannot be substituted by any one other resource listed here. You must spend time using the product and applying the skills learned. The exam is looking to measure how well you know how to perform tasks, not how well you memorize features and functions.

WebSphere Application Server V9 Administration in a Federated Environment

In this course, you learn how to configure and maintain IBM WebSphere Application Server V9 Network Deployment. You learn how to deploy and create a deployment manager and federate a cell. In addition, you learn how to create a cluster within the federated cell.

WebSphere Application Server v9 Administration
In this course, you learn how to configure and maintain IBM WebSphere Application Server V9 in a single-server environment. You learn how to deploy enterprise Java applications in a single computer configuration. In addition, you learn how to work with features of WebSphere Application Server V9, such as the wsadmin scripting interface, security, and performance monitoring.
Product Documentation

IBM WebSphere Application Server V9.0 Documentation
View the latest IBM WebSphere Application Server traditional V9 documentation for IBM i, IBM AIX, HP-UX, Linux, Solaris, and Windows operating systems. This information applies to IBM WebSphere Application Server traditional V9 and to all subsequent releases and modifications until otherwise indicated in new editions.

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QUESTION 1
Which two ways are valid ways to install applications to IBM WebSphere Application Server? (Select two.)

A. wsadminscript
B. JMS messaging
C. IBM Installation Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Access Manager
E. Integrated Solutions Console

Answer: A,E

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Explanation:
Deploy an application or module using the administrative console, wsadmin, programming, or deployment tools.
References:https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSAW57_8.5.5/com.ibm.we bsphere.nd.doc/ae/crun_app_install.html

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QUESTION 2
Which is true when an administrator properly updates a single file within an application?

A. The administrator can use apartial application update.
B. The administrator must redeploy the full application file.
C. The administrator can manually update the file on the file system.
D. The administrator must uninstall the application, and then, reinstall with the updated application file.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 3
Which is true about software repositories for IBM Installation Manager?

A. Repositories must be local.
B. Repositories must be online.
C. Repositories can be either local or online.
D. Repositories are only in the media package.

Answer: C

Explanation:
IBM Installation Manager is a single installation program that can use remote or local software repositories to install,modify, or update certain IBM products. It determines and shows available packages, checks prerequisites and interdependencies, and installs or modifies the selected packages. You also use IBM Installation Manager to uninstall the packages that it installed.
References:http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg24023498

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QUESTION 4
Which of the following is true about creating multiple security domains?

A. A new security domain can be created only using the administrative console.
B. Global security must be enabled before creating new multiple security domains.
C. Only usersassigned to the security-admin role can create new multiple security domains.
D. If a unique name for the domain is not specified, the system will automatically create one.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Only users assigned to the administrator role can configure multiple security domains.
References:https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSAW57_8.5.5/com.ibm.websp here.nd.doc/ae/csec_sec_multiple_domains.html

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QUESTION 5
Which statement describes the capabilities of the deployment manager?

A. Logical grouping of application servers
B. Created and installed when a node is federated into acell
C. Created automatically when an application server is federated into a cell
D. Manages nodes, node agents, and the configuration repository for the cell

Answer: D

Explanation:
The deployment manager is an administration application that runs in a special application server, which is created when you install the WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment product or when you create a management profile using the deployment manager profile template.
References:https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSAW57_8.5.5/com.ibm.we bsphere.nd.doc/ae/tagt_snsdply_is.html

C9020-663 IBM Systems: Storage Systems

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 36
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live

This exam consists of 5 sections described below.

Customer requirements 13%
Identify customer business drivers and goals as they relate to IBM business critical storage solutions.
Identify customer technology requirements as they relate to IBM business critical storage solutions.
Identify requirements of a customer's physical environment as they relate to IBM business critical storage solutions.

Pre-sales technical support 20%
Describe differences among the DS8000 hybrid flash systems and DS8880 all-flash systems and other IBM storage systems..
Describe technical capabilities of the DS8000 hybrid flash and DS8880 all-flash systems.

Solution architecture 27%
Describe a system that meets customer requirements.
Describe a replication solution that utilizes metro, global, three-site and four-site environments including sizing of connectivity requirements and copy services.
Describe licensing requirements appropriate for customer needs.
Identify requirements and benefits of additional external software.
Describe the TDA process.

Solution design and implementation 23%
Describe license management in the DS8000 hybrid flash and DS8880 all-flash systems.
Describe concepts associated with DS8000 hybrid flash and DS8880 all-flash systems' storage capacity.
Given a scenario, recognize critical factors in sizing storage solutions.
Given a scenario, recognize critical factors in host connectivity.
Given a scenario, describe copy services capabilities.
Describe remote support capabilities.
Describe local alerting features and functions.
Describe security features and functions.

Tools, features and resources 17%
Describe processes used to meet performance requirements.
Describe advanced functions.
Given a scenario, describe processes, procedures, or resources to help resolve installation and implementation issues.
Describe additional fee-based services and resources.

Overview
PartnerWorld Code: 23002406
Replaces PW Code: 23002405

Status: Live
This IBM Business Critical Specialist can work independently to provide pre-sales technical support, solution design including SAN, and implementation planning for the current IBM System Storage DS8000 Hybrid Storage and DS8880 All Flash family in an open systems and/or IBM z Systems mainframe environment to meet customer requirements. This specialist can identify customer requirements and architect and design appropriate solutions to meet the requirements.

IBM products included on this certification exam include IBM DS8884, IBM DS8886, IBM DS8888, IBM SAN, IBM Spectrum Control, IBM Spectrum Protect and IBM SAN Volume Controller with IBM Spectrum Virtualize software.

This specialist can perform the following tasks without assistance: articulate the differences (from other IBM storage) and/or advantages of currently marketed IBM System Storage DS8000 solutions in an IBM z Systems or open systems environment; correctly position the IBM System Storage DS8000 Hybrid Storage and DS8880 All Flash family in the IBM storage solutions portfolio; be familiar with general features of current and previous IBM DS8000 systems for purposes of upgrades and compatibility; have knowledge of IBM tools used to size and design a configuration to meet requirements (Disk Magic, Capacity Magic, eConfig); take technical responsibility for the pre-sales and pre-installation Technical Delivery and Assurance (TDA) process; recommend options for advanced functions appropriate to the OS environment, e.g., Global Copy, FlashCopy, Metro Mirror, Global Mirror, Metro/Global Mirror, QoS, thin provisioning, z/OS Global Mirror, HyperSwap, dataset FlashCopy, PAV, zHPF, and distributed data backup; understand architectural features, e.g., encryption, tiering, Transparent Cloud Tiering, RAS, and VMware integration; verify the interoperability of the solution via System Storage Interoperation Center (SSIC) in the customer environment; understand and position the integration with PowerHA, IBM Spectrum Storage family, GDPS, and other IBM products; possess knowledge of the IBM support organization and resources and where to find assistance when needed; understand options available for migration and environments where they are applicable; have a basic understanding of Logical Storage Subsystem (LSS) and how it relates to copy services; understand basic concepts of DS8000 GUI and DS8000 CLI and have a basic understanding of financial concepts, e.g. budget, ROI, TCO, TCA, OPEX and CAPEX.

This specialist can perform the following tasks with assistance: provide post-sales support of the solution; develop a migration strategy; work in heterogeneous operating system environments, e.g., mainframe and open systems; and design business continuity solutions.

This specialist can use the following tools and resources: Knowledge Center; Disk Magic; Capacity Magic; STAT; eConfig; TDAs; IBM Sales Manual; System Storage Interoperation Center (SSIC); and Redbooks..

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Three months experience in an IBM System Storage DS8000 Hybrid Storage and DS8880 All Flash family pre-sales technical support role
24 months or more general storage experience and enterprise class storage experience
Understand implementation of a current IBM System Storage DS8000 Hybrid Storage and DS8880 All Flash family system in an open systems and/or mainframe environment and knowledge of upgrade path(s) from legacy IBM DS8000 family products
Understand SAN technology to support business critical solutions
Capability to work independently and effectively in complex environments

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1Z0-976 Oracle CPQ Cloud Service 2017 Implementation Essentials

Exam Number: 1Z0-976
Exam Title: Oracle CPQ Cloud Service 2017 Implementation Essentials
Duration: 120
Number of Questions:  70
Passing Score: 70%
Format: Multiple Choice

General Administration Functionality
Define Company and User set up
Use the Migration Management Center
Explain Homepage Flows, Punch-Ins, and Page Templates
Perform Bulk Uploads and Downloads
Set up users and groups with access rights
Set up Partner Organizations
Create Usage reports and Site statistics
Perform the functions of File Manager
Access various system Log files
Perform various functions on Parts
Set up Invocation Rules

Configuration
Design the Product Structure (Product Family Hierarchy)
Set up Configurable Attributes
Design and Build an Array-Based Configuration
Design Configuration Rules
Describe UI / UX Heuristics
Describe the Order of Operations

Commerce Process
Design Commerce Pricing
Design Commerce Workflow
Design Approval Workflow and Notifications
Design Commerce UI and Access Rights
Design Commerce Rules
Invoke a commerce process
Describe the Order of Operations
Use Formula Management
Describe Customer-Specific Pricing

Document Designer
Create Document Designer (Layout, Elements, Conditions, Loops etc.)
Describe Language Translations
Design custom XSL Snippets
Describe Email Designer

Integration - CRM/ERP/REST APIs
Design and implement a Parts Integration (FTP / SOAP)
Design out-of-box integrations with CRM Systems
Design and configure webServices (SOAP and REST)
Design and integrate CPQ Cloud with ERP or other backend systems
Install and configure a CPQ Cloud Managed Package
Develop Environment and Testing strategies
Describe the CPQ Cloud ICS adapter
Design and implement an FTP Data Import

BigMachines Language (BML)
Explain and use BML
Explain BMQL and its use cases
Write and design BML scripts
Design Integrations using BML
Use BML functions
Explain BML Library functions

Subscription Ordering and BOM Mapping
Explain BOM Mapping
Implement BOM Mapping
Configure Subscription Ordering

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Authentication requires an Oracle Single Sign On username and password and the following information from your Pearson VUE profile: email address and Oracle Testing ID. You will be taken to CertView to log in once your account has been authenticated.

---

QUESTION 1
Consider the following requirements for integration with Salesforce:
Quote information needs to be pushed back to Salesforce and synchronized.
You must be able to synchronize a Quote with up to 1000 lines back to Opportunity Product object in Salesforce.
Based on these requirements, which three XSLs would you use to provide the integration?

A. SFDC Opportunity - Import
B. SFDC Quote - Upsert
C. SFDC Products – Upsert All (200, 400, 600, 800, 1000)
D. SFDC Quote – Process Updates
E. SFDC Opportunity - Upload

Answer: C,D,E

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QUESTION 2
Which is a recommended option for using Oracle CPQ Cloud SPQ Cloud BigMachines WebServices?

A. Hard code URLs into BML when making GET and POST calls.
B. Store XML templates in file manager and use them from within BML.
C. Make WebServices calls directly from the rules.
D. Save and reuse session IDs regularly.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 3
What is the correct order of execution of Configuration rules for an attribute that has both Recommendation and Constraint rule written on it?

A. Hiding, Constraint, Recommendation, Recommended Item
B. Recommendation, Recommended Item, Hiding, Constraint
C. Recommendation, Constraint, Recommendation, Hiding, Recommended Item
D. Constraint, Hiding, Recommendation, Recommended Item

Answer: A

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QUESTION 4
How can action buttons be hidden in Commerce?

A. by using Commerce hiding rules
B. by using Configuration hiding rules
C. by using profiles and steps in Commerce
D. by putting the action button bar on a hidden tab in Commerce

Answer: B

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QUESTION 5
The following BML code in Config encountered an HTTP 404 error from someurl.com.
urldatabypost (http://someurl.com, “a1=v1&a2=v2”, “call failed”)
Which two statements are true?

A. The call will return “HTTP 404 Not Found”.
B. The call will return “call failed”.
C. An HTTP error will be displayed in red text with the message “HTTP 404 Not Found” at the top of the configuration screen.
D. The HTTP error will be captured in the BigMachines Error Logs: bm.log.
E. An unhandled exception will be displayed in red text at the top of configuration screen.

Answer: B,E

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SY0-501 CompTIA Security+ (501)

Exam Details
Exam Codes SY0-401 SY0-501
Launch Date May 1, 2014 October ​4, 2017
Exam Description The CompTIA Security+ exam will certify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to install and configure systems to secure applications, networks, and devices; perform threat analysis and respond with appropriate mitigation techniques; participate in risk mitigation activities; and operate with an awareness of applicable policies, laws, and regulations. The successful candidate will perform these tasks to support the principles of confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
Number of Questions Maximum of 90 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test 90 minutes
​Passing Score 750 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience CompTIA Network+ and two years of experience in IT administration with a security focus
Languages English, Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese. English (Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese estimated Q2 2018)
Retirement
English retirement: July 31, 2018;
Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese: December 15, 2018
Usually three years after launch
CompTIA Security+ is the certification globally trusted to validate foundational, vendor-neutral IT security knowledge and skills. As a benchmark for best practices in IT security, this certification covers the essential principles for network security and risk management – making it an important stepping stone of an IT security career.
Jobs that use Security+
Security Specialist/Administrator
Security ​Consultant
Security or ​Systems ​Administrator
Network ​Administrator
Companies that use CompTIA Security+ include:
Apple
Dell
HP
IBM
Intel
U.S. Department of Defense
4 Steps to a Cybersecurity Career
Want more CompTIA Security+ information?
Overview
IT security is paramount to organizations as cloud computing and mobile devices have changed the way we do business. With the massive amounts of data transmitted and stored on networks throughout the world, it’s essential to have effective security practices in place. That’s where CompTIA Security+ comes in. Get the Security+ certification to show that you have the skills to secure a network and deter hackers and you’re ready for the job.
Security+ is government approved
CompTIA Security+ meets the ISO 17024 standard and is approved by U.S. Department of Defense to fulfill Directive 8570.01-M requirements. It is compliant with government regulations under the Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA).
Security+ is globally recognized
CompTIA Security+ is a globally recognized credential with certified professionals working in over 147 countries throughout the world.
Security+ provides substantial earnings potential
According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, Security Specialists, Administrators and Managers earn over $86,000 per year.
Security+ is industry supported
Security+ is developed and maintained by leading IT experts. Content for the exams stems from a combination of industry-wide survey feedback and contributions from our team of subject matter experts. Learn more about the people behind the CompTIA Security+ Advisory Committee.
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Information technology is an incredibly dynamic field, creating new opportunities and challenges every day. Participating in our Continuing Education program will enable you to stay current with new and evolving technologies and remain a sought-after IT and security expert.
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Your CompTIA Security+ certification is good for three years from the day of your exam. The CE program allows you to extend your certification in three-year intervals through activities and training that relate to the content of your certification. Like Security+ itself, CompTIA Security+ ce also carries globally-recognized ISO/ANSI accreditation status.
It’s easy to renew
You can participate in a number of activities and training programs, including higher certifications, to renew your CompTIA Security+ certification. Collect at least 50 Continuing Education Units (CEUs) in three years, upload them to your certification account, and Security+ will automatically renew.

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QUESTION 1
A security analyst wishes to increase the security of an FTP server. Currently, all trails to the FTP server is unencrypted. Users connecting to the FTP server use a variety of modem FTP client software. The security analyst wants to keep the same port and protocol, while also still allowing unencrypted connections. Which of the following would BEST accomplish these goals?
A. Require the SFTP protocol to connect to the file server.
B. Use implicit TLS on the FTP server.
C. Use explicit FTPS for the connections.
D. Use SSH tunneling to encrypt the FTP traffic.
Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
A company has three divisions, each with its own networks and services. The company decides to make its secure web portal accessible to all employees utilizing their existing usernames and passwords, The security administrator has elected to use SAML to support authentication. In this scenario, which of the following will occur when users try to authenticate to the portal? (Select TWO)
A. B. The portal will function as an identity provider and issue an authentication assertion
B. C. The portal will request an authentication ticket from each network that is transitively trusted
C. D. The back-end networks will function as an identity provider and issue an authentication assertion
D. The back-end networks will request authentication tickets from the portal, which will act as the third-party service provider authentication store
E. F. The back-end networks will verify the assertion token issued by the portal functioning as the identity provider
Answer: C

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QUESTION 3
Which of the following would a security specialist be able to determine upon examination of a server’s certificate?
A. CA public key
B. Server private key
C. CSR
D. OID
Answer: B

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C5050-300 Foundations of IBM DevOps V1

Test information:
Number of questions: 61
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 70%
Languages: English, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Solution Advisor - DevOps V1

Section 1 - DevOps Principles
Define DevOps
Summarize different development approaches
Explain and identify delivery pipelines
Explain lean principles
Explain DevOps practices
Describe Collaborative Development
Describe Continuous Integration
Describe Continuous Delivery
Describe Continuous Deployment
Describe Continuous Availability / Service Management / Monitoring
Describe Continuous Security / Security for DevOps
Explain Shift-Left Test /Continuous Test
Explain Shift Left Ops
Explain Multi-speed IT
Explain Continuous Feedback
Explain the implications of the �12 Factor app� design principles for DevOps
ITIL and DevOps

Section 2 - Adopting DevOps
Describe business and IT drivers of DevOps
Explain the barriers to adoption of DevOps
Explain how to build a roadmap for DevOps adoption
Explain how to adopt DevOps in Multi-speed IT environment
Explain other continuous improvement approaches
Illustrate the cultural & organizational differences when transforming from traditional to DevOps processes
Explain the benefits of Design Thinking for DevOps process adoption

Section 3 - IBM DevOps Reference Architecture & Methods
Describe IBM DevOps Reference Architecture pattern
Explain the IBM point of view on DevOps
Explain DevOps for Microservices
Explain DevOps for Cloud Native
Explain DevOps for Cloud Ready
Explain Cloud Service Management Operations
Describe the IBM Bluemix Garage Method
Define and identify the common components of a DevOps Tool chain
Describe the key architectural decisions made to adopt DevOps
Describe the concepts of Software Defined Environments

Section 4 - Open Standards, Open Source & Other Common Components of DevOps
Identify tools for Build & Deploy
Identify other common tools and their uses
Describe common container technology
Explain the applicability of open standards for DevOps

Section 5 - IBM Solution for DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the THINK phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the CODE phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the DELIVER phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the RUN phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the MANAGE phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the LEARN phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the CULTURE phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for Security in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for transformation and connectivity in DevOps
IBM Certified Solution Advisor - DevOps V1

Job Role Description / Target Audience
An IBM Certified Solution Advisor - DevOps V1 is a person who can clearly explain the benefits and underlying concepts of DevOps, and has practical experience of implementing DevOps processes and solutions for clients. They can advise stakeholders on how to adopt DevOps, how to overcome barriers, and how to realize the business benefits of DevOps. They can also demonstrate how the leading industry, Open and IBM solution offerings can help customers realize these benefits.

Key areas of competency include:
Clearly articulate the benefits of DevOps for driving business agility and continuous innovation.
Advise stakeholders on how to remove barriers to the adoption of DevOps, and implement organizational change and continual process improvement.
Have a deep working experience of Continuous delivery (integration, delivery, collaboration, innovation) practices.
Experience of application development lifecycle, operational methods, SCM, version control and common tooling for cloud-ready and cloud-native application development.
Working knowledge of development, test automation and virtualization, deployment, and operational best practices.
Understand the IBM DevOps reference architecture patterns, and can apply them to DevOps solutions.
Recommend the best approach, tooling and consumption models (on premises / public / SaaS) across the IBM solution portfolio (and leading open toolchain components).

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

The following qualifications are requirements for success:
Advanced knowledge of DevOps principles, practices, and development approaches
Advanced experience of Continuous delivery (integration, delivery, collaboration, innovation) practices.
Working knowledge of the IBM DevOps Reference Architecture and associated adoption patterns.
Working knowledge of tooling and consumption models (on-premises / public / SaaS) from the IBM DevOps portfolio.
Working knowledge of the IBM DevOps solution offerings.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).

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QUESTION 1
Which type of tests are designed to verify that security features such as authentication and logout work as expected?

A. build verification
B. network vulnerability
C. functional security
D. synthetic user

Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
When long lived source control management (SCM) branches are merged, significant amounts of network can be required to resolve code conflicts. Which DevOps practice addresses this problem?

A. continuous integration
B. test-driven development
C. A/B testing
D. continuous deployment

Answer: B

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QUESTION 3
What are two key metrics for cloud native applications? (Choose two.)

A. performance
B. stability
C. mean time between failures (MTBF)
D. first failure data capture (FFDC)
E. speed of change

Answer: A,E

Explanation: References:

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QUESTION 4
Which volume of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) should be an integral part of every stage of the ITIL service management framework?

A. ITILService Design
B. ITIL Service Operations
C. ITIL Continual Service Improvement
D. ITIL Service Strategy

Answer: C

Explanation: References:

---

QUESTION 5
How does adopting DevOps help improve insight into the real value of applications?

A. by using mean time between failure (MTBF) metrics
B. by using customer feedback
C. by using usage statistics for cloud native applications
D. by using analytical analysis for return on investment (ROI) calculations

Answer: A

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C2150-210 IBM Security Identity Governance Fundamentals V5.1

Test information:
Number of questions: 47
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 58%
Languages: English, French, Latin American Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil)

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Associate - Security Identity Governance V5.1

Certifications (13%)
Define certification dataset and campaign�
Define signoff options
Define supervisor and reviewer activities
Define notification configuration�

Role Management (9%)
Define role structure
Publish role and define visibility
Consolidate role

Role Mining (15%)
Load Access Optimizer data
Create Role Mining session
Analyse statistics charts to identify candidate role
Analyse assignment map to identify candidate role
Analyse entitlement and user coverage to identify candidate role�
Leverage candidate role in IAG warehouse

Role Maintanence and Health (6%)
Identify unused roles
Retire role
Setup Role Certification campaign

Reporting (13%)
Identify standard report
Customize report layout
Configure scope visibility
customize query and add filter criteria
configure authorization to report for selected users

Separation of Duties (17%)
Define Business Activities
Define SoD Policy
Define Technical Transformation
Analyse Risk Violations
Define Mitigation Controls
Setup Risk Violation Certification Campaign

Installation (9%)
Prepare database server and schema
Configure virtual machine
Install virtual appliance
Configure database connections

Enterprise Integration (4%)
Identity ISIM and ISIG integration options
Identify supported connectors

ISIG Authorization Model (9%)
Define functional authorization for ISIG users
Restrict the data portion for a functional authorization
Define and use Attribute Groups

Access Request Management (9%)
Identify common process activities
Identify UI customization options
Review access request status

IBM Certified Associate - Security Identity Governance V5.1
Job Role Description / Target Audience
An IBM Certified Associate - Security Identity Governance V5.1 is an individual with entry level knowledge and experience with IBM Security Identity Governance V5.1 . This individual is knowledgeable about the fundamental concepts of IBM Security Identity Governance V5.1 through hands on experience. The associate should have an in-depth knowledge of the basic to intermediate tasks required in day-to-day use of IBM Security Identity Governance V5.1 . The individual should be able to complete these tasks with little to not assistance from documentation, peers or support.

Key Areas of Competency
IBM Security Identity Governance UI from an admin and end user perspective
Identify the key ISIG features
Understand the benefits of using ISIG for identity and access governance.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Working end user knowledge of IBM Security Identity Governance V5.1
Understand Identity Governance, Risk and Compliance (GRC) infrastructure such as audit, reporting, access
review, and certification.
Experience with role modeling and role mining
Experience with role healthcare and maintenance.
Understand the ISIG entitlement model and how to leverage it to build target application authorization models.
Understand the ISIG authorization model and access governance responsibilities.
Experience performing an RFP in the access governance space.
Understand business activity-based separation of duties modeling for better business and auditor readability.
Understand typical functionality of access request workflows such as manager approvals.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).

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70-773 Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R

Exam 70-773
Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R

Published: January 3, 2017
Languages: English
Audiences: Data scientists
Technology Microsoft R Server, SQL R Services
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSE

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

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Read and explore big data
Read data with R Server
Read supported data file formats, such as text files, SAS, and SPSS; convert data to XDF format; identify trade-offs between XDF and flat text files; read data through Open Database Connectivity (ODBC) data sources; read in files from other file systems; use an internal data frame as a data source; process data from sources that cannot be read natively by R Server
Summarize data
Compute crosstabs and univariate statistics, choose when to use rxCrossTabs versus rxCube, integrate with open source technologies by using packages such as dplyrXdf, use group by functionality, create complex formulas to perform multiple tasks in one pass through the data, extract quantiles by using rxQuantile
Visualize data
Visualize in-memory data with base plotting functions and ggplot2; create custom visualizations with rxSummary and rxCube; visualize data with rxHistogram and rxLinePlot, including faceted plots

Process big data
Process data with rxDataStep
Subset rows of data, modify and create columns by using the Transforms argument, choose when to use on-the-fly transformations versus in-data transform trade-offs, handle missing values through filtering or replacement, generate a data frame or an XDF file, process dates (POSIXct, POSIXlt)
Perform complex transforms that use transform functions
Define a transform function; reshape data by using a transform function; use open source packages, such as lubridate; pass in values by using transformVars and transformEnvir; use internal .rx variables and functions for tasks, including cross-chunk communication
Manage data sets
Sort data in various orders, such as ascending and descending; use rxSort deduplication to remove duplicate values; merge data sources using rxMerge(); merge options and types; identify when alternatives to rxSort and rxMerge should be used
Process text using RML packages
Create features using RML functions, such as featurizeText(); create indicator variables and arrays using RML functions, such as categorical() and categoricalHash(); perform feature selection using RML functions

Build predictive models with ScaleR
Estimate linear models
Use rxLinMod, rxGlm, and rxLogit to estimate linear models; set the family for a generalized linear model by using functions such as rxTweedie; process data on the fly by using the appropriate arguments and functions, such as the F function and Transforms argument; weight observations through frequency or probability weights; choose between different types of automatic variable selections, such as greedy searches, repeated scoring, and byproduct of training; identify the impact of missing values during automatic variable selection
Build and use partitioning models
Use rxDTree, rxDForest, and rxBTrees to build partitioning models; adjust the weighting of false positives and misses by using loss; select parameters that affect bias and variance, such as pruning, learning rate, and tree depth; use as.rpart to interact with open source ecosystems
Generate predictions and residuals
Use rxPredict to generate predictions; perform parallel scoring using rxExec; generate different types of predictions, such as link and response scores for GLM, response, prob, and vote for rxDForest; generate different types of residuals, such as Usual, Pearson, and DBM
Evaluate models and tuning parameters
Summarize estimated models; run arbitrary code out of process, such as parallel parameter tuning by using rxExec; evaluate tree models by using RevoTreeView and rxVarImpPlot; calculate model evaluation metrics by using built-in functions; calculate model evaluation metrics and visualizations by using custom code, such as mean absolute percentage error and precision recall curves
Create additional models using RML packages
Build and use a One-Class Support Vector Machine, build and use linear and logistic regressions that use L1 and L2 regularization, build and use a decision tree by using FastTree, use FastTree as a recommender with ranking loss (NDCG), build and use a simple three-layer feed-forward neural network

Use R Server in different environments
Use different compute contexts to run R Server effectively
Change the compute context (rxHadoopMR, rxSpark, rxLocalseq, and rxLocalParallel); identify which compute context to use for different tasks; use different data source objects, depending on the context (RxOdbcData and RxTextData); identify and use appropriate data sources for different data sources and compute contexts (HDFS and SQL Server); debug processes across different compute contexts; identify use cases for RevoPemaR
Optimize tasks by using local compute contexts
Identify and execute tasks that can be run only in the local compute context, identify tasks that are more efficient to run in the local compute context, choose between rxLocalseq and rxLocalParallel, profile across different compute contexts
Perform in-database analytics by using SQL Server
Choose when to perform in-database versus out-of-database computations, identify limitations of in-database computations, use in-database versus out-of-database compute contexts appropriately, use stored procedures for data processing steps, serialize objects and write back to binary fields in a table, write tables, configure R to optimize SQL Server ( chunksize, numtasks, and computecontext), effectively communicate performance properties to SQL administrators and architects (SQL Server Profiler)
Implement analysis workflows in the Hadoop ecosystem and Spark
Use appropriate R Server functions in Spark; integrate with Hive, Pig, and Hadoop MapReduce; integrate with the Spark ecosystem of tools, such as SparklyR and SparkR; profile and tune across different compute contexts; use doRSR for parallelizing code that was written using open source foreach
Deploy predictive models to SQL Server and Azure Machine Learning
Deploy predictive models to SQL Server as a stored procedure, deploy an arbitrary function to Azure Machine Learning by using the AzureML R package, identify when to use DeployR

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Question No : 1

Note: This question Is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choice. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided In a question apply only to that question. You need to evaluate the significance of coefficient that are produced by using a model that
was estimated already.

Which function should you use?

A. rxPredict
B. rxLogit
C. Summary
D. rxLinMod
E. rxTweedie
F. stepAic
G. rxTransform
H. rxDataStep

Answer: D

Explanation: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/r-server/r/how-to-revoscaler-linear-model

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Question No : 2
You need to build a model that looks at the probability of an outcome. You must regulate between L1 and L2. Which classification method should you use?

A. Two-Class Neural Network
B. Two-Class Support Vector Machine
C. Two-Class Decision Forest
D. Two-Class Logistic Regression

Answer: A

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C2090-730 DB2 9 Family Fundamentals

Test information:
Number of questions: 64
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 59%
Languages: English, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Application Developer - DB2 9.7 for Linux, Unix and Windows
IBM Certified Database Administrator - DB2 9.7 for Linux, Unix and Windows
IBM Certified Advanced Deployment Professional - Tivoli Service Management Solutions 2008
IBM Certified Advanced Database Administrator - DB2 9.7 for Linux, UNIX and Windows
IBM Certified Database Associate -- DB2 9 Fundamentals
IBM Certified Database Administrator - DB2 9 DBA for z/OS
IBM Certified Database Administrator - DB2 10.1 for Linux, UNIX, and Windows
IBM Certified Solution Designer -- DB2 Business Intelligence V8
IBM Certified Database Administrator - DB2 10 for z/OS
IBM Certified Solution Developer - DB2 9.5 SQL Procedure Developer
IBM Certified Solution Developer - DB2 9.7 SQL Procedure
IBM Certified Application Developer - DB2 9
IBM Certified Advanced Database Administrator - DB2 10.1 for Linux UNIX and Windows
IBM Certified Database Administrator - DB2 10.5 DBA for LUW Upgrade from DB2 10.1
IBM Certified System Administrator - DB2 9 for z/OS
IBM Certified System Administrator - DB2 10 for z/OS

This Database Associate is an entry level DBA or a user of any of the DB2 family of products. This individual is knowledgeable about the fundamental concepts of DB2 9 through either hands on experience or formal and informal education. The database associate should have an in-depth knowledge of the basic to intermediate tasks required in day-to-day administration, basic SQL (Structured Query Language), understand how DB2 9 is packaged and installed, understand how to create databases and database objects, and have a basic knowledge of database security and transaction isolation.

Section 1 - Planning (14%)
Knowledge of restricting data access
Knowledge of the features or functions available in DB2 tools (just tools that come with product - distributed +space - i.e., control center, configuration advisor, configuration assistant, command line processor)
Knowledge database workloads (OLTP vs warehousing)
Knowledge of non-relational data concepts (extenders)
Knowledge of XML data implications (non-shreading)

Section 2 - Security (11%)
Knowledge of DB2 products (client, server, etc.)
Knowledge of different privileges and authorities
Knowledge of encryption options (data and network)
Given a DDL SQL statement, knowledge to identify results (grant/revoke/connect statements)

Section 3 - Working with Databases and Database Objects (17%)
Ability to identify and connect to DB2 servers and databases
Ability to identify DB2 objects
Knowledge of basic characteristics and properties of DB2 objects
Given a DDL SQL statement, knowledge to identify results (ability to create objects)

Section 4 - Working with DB2 Data using SQL (23.5%)
Given a DML SQL statement, knowledge to identify results
Ability to use SQL to SELECT data from tables
Ability to use SQL to SORT or GROUP data
Ability to use SQL to UPDATE, DELETE, or INSERT data
Knowledge of transactions (i.e., commit/rollback and transaction boundaries)
Ability to call a procedure or invoke a user defined function
Given an XQuery statement, knowledge to identify results

Section 5 - Working with DB2 Tables, Views and Indexes (23.5%)
Ability to demonstrate usage of DB2 data types
Given a situation, ability to create table
Knowledge to identify when referential integrity should be used
Knowledge to identify methods of data constraint
Knowledge to identify characteristics of a table, view or index
Knowledge to identify when triggers should be used
Knowledge of schemas
Knowledge of data type options for storing XML data

Section 6 - Data Concurrency (11%)
Knowledge to identify factors that influence locking
Ability to list objects on which locks can be obtained
Knowledge to identify characteristics of DB2 locks
Given a situation, knowledge to identify the isolation levels that should be used

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on a Windows server that has 2CPUs?

A. DB2 Everyplace
B. DB2 Express Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D. DB2 Enterprise Server Edition

Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
Which of the following products is allowed to access other DB2 servers, but cannot accept requests from otherremote clients?

A. DB2 Personal Edition
B. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
C. DB2 Enterprise Server Edition
D. DB2 Data Warehouse Edition

Answer: A

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QUESTION 3
A client application on z/OS must access a DB2 database on a Solaris Server. At a minimum, which of the following products must be installed on the Solaris workstation?

A. DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition
B. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition and DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition
D. DB2 Enterprise Server Edition and DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition

Answer: D

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QUESTION 4
Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on an HP-UX server?

A. DB2 Express-C
B. DB2 Express
C. DB2 Personal Edition
D. DB2 Enterprise Server Edition

Answer: D

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QUESTION 5
Which of the following products must be installed on an AIX server in order to build an application for AIX that will access a DB2 for z/OS database?

A. DB2 Enterprise Server Edition
B. DB2 Personal Developer's Edition
C. DB2 UniversalDeveloper's Edition
D. DB2 Universal Database Enterprise Edition and DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition

Answer: C

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C2090-645 IBM Cognos 10 BI Multidimensional Author

Test information:
Number of questions: 57
Time allowed in minutes: 60
Required passing score: 75%
Languages: English, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Designer - Cognos 10 BI Multidimensional Reports
IBM Certified Solution Expert - Cognos BI

The Cognos 10 BI Multidimensional Author Exam covers key concepts, technologies, and functionality of the Cognos products. In preparation for an exam, we recommend a combination of training and hands-on experience, and a detailed review of product documentation.

Dimensional Data Components (28%)
Distinguish between relational, DMR, and dimensional data sources
Identify dimensional data items and expressions
Define multidimensional data structure components
Describe the importance of report context
Identify the default measure of a report
Describe default members and their purpose
Describe what a MUN is and identify the impact of using the wrong MUN
Describe what a set is
Describe what a tuple is

Focus Reports (14%)
Distinguish between dimensional and relational filtering styles
Identify techniques to focus data using the dimensional style
Interpret data that is focused based on members
Interpret data that is filtered based on measure values
Describe the purpose of a slicer

Drilling in Reports (14%)
Describe default drill-down behavior
Describe default drill-up behavior
Describe cases for advanced drilling configuration
Appraise reports generated with calculations that are preserved during drilling
Describe how member sets work

Drill-through Access (8%)
Identify supported drill-through data item combinations
Set-up drill-through access
Describe a conformed dimension

Calculations and Dimensional Functions (36%)
Describe the use of arithmetic operations in queries
Analyze the use of dimensional functions in queries
Examine coercion
Apply prompts to focus reports
Compose complex expressions that combine and reuse existing expressions

---

QUESTION 1
To display all individual campaigns in a crosstab report, a report author could use the expression set([TrailChef Campaign],[EverGlow Campaign],[Course Pro Campaign]). Instead, the report author decides to use the parent member of the campaigns in the set expression "children([All Campaigns])". Which statement is true about the method that was used?

A. In the future, when a campaign is deleted or new ones are added, the report author must modify the expression.
B. In the future, when a campaign is deleted or new ones are added, the unmodified expression will be valid.
C. The report author should not have used the method chosen, as the first method is best
in this situation.
D. To be accurate, the report author should avoid using a set expression.

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements is correct about the order function?

A. The currentMeasure function must be used with the order function as the sort by criterion.
B. It arranges members of all sets in the report by ascending or descending values.
C. Optional parameters allow the author to order the members of a hierarchy without regard of their level.
D. It arranges members of a set alphabetically by ascending or descending captions.

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 3
A report author is working with an OLAP data source. The report author creates a query that uses a caption function on a member and applies a string function. What is a possible consequence of this action?

A. Using these dimensional methods will not work with an OLAP data source.
B. The mapped string values will not pass through to the target report.
C. There is nothing wrong with this approach.
D. Mixing dimensional styles and relational styles in a single query can create unexpected results.

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 4
When must a report author use the caption function?

A. As the first parameter of the roleValue function.
B. To return the display name for the specified business key.
C. To see the string display name for the specified element.
D. To pass the returned value to a drill-through target report, this expects a matching string as a parameter value.

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 5
Instead of prompting the user to select any countries in Europe, the report author wants to constrain the user to select one or more countries from the Northern Europe region. What kind of prompt should be used and how can this be achieved?

A. This is not possible because a prompt must always be populated with all members of a level.
B. Create a multi-select value prompt. Populate it using an expression on the [Northern Europe] member to retrieve its children on the country level.
C. Generate a prompt by creating an expression with a parameter on the crosstab edge: children([Northern Europe]->?Country?
D. Create a tree prompt, and populate it using an expression on the [Northern Europe]
member to retrieve its children at the country level.

Answer: B

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C2090-632 IBM Cognos 10 BI Metadata Model Developer

Test information:
Number of questions: 53
Time allowed in minutes: 60
Required passing score: 71%
Languages: English, French, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Advanced Developer - Risk Information Governance for BI
IBM Certified Solution Expert - Cognos BI
IBM Certified Developer - Cognos 10 BI Metadata Models
IBM Certified Solution Expert - Cognos 8 BI Migration

The Cognos 10 BI Metadata Model Developer exam covers key concepts, technologies, and functionality of the Cognos products. In preparation for an exam, we recommend a combination of training and hands-on experience, and a detailed review of product documentation.

Common Data Structures and Traps (16%)
Identify Common Data Structures
Identify different data traps

Framework Manager Basics (16%)
Identify the different model types that can be published from Framework Manager
Define the purpose of Framework Manager
Create a project
Identify recommendations for preparing metadata

Predictable Results (16%)
Identify recommendations to achieve predictable results
Describe why and how to implement a time dimension
Identify techniques for creating intuitive business views

Security (9%)
Describe the Cognos 10 security environment
Describe how to implement security on models and packages

Project Management and Maintenance (5%)
Identify techniques for managing Framework Manager projects
Identify techniques for managing Framework Manager packages

Query Subject Types (9%)
Identify different query subject types and uses

Generated SQL and Complex Queries (17%)
Identify SQL Generation in Complex Queries
Identify aggregated result sets for multi-fact queries
Identify aggregations in Report Studio SQL

Optimization and Tuning (5%)
Describe the performance impact of queries

Advanced Techniques (7%)
Describe how to leverage user defined functions
Describe how to resolve a recursive relationship
Identify considerations for drill-through values and managing MUNs

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is correct regarding the Cognos 10 security environment?

A. Cognos 10 must be configured to use only one authentication provider at a time.
B. To perform authentication of users, a connection to the Cognos namespace must be defined.
C. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for users, groups and roles defined in the authentication providers.
D. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for groups and roles (of which users are members), not individual users.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 2
In Framework Manager, which of the following statements is correct when working with a multi-lingual project?

A. The design language can be changed at any point.
B. A project language cannot be deleted once defined in Framework Manager.
C. A language must be added to the project before it can be published with a package.
D. When a new language is added to a project, all locales for that language are added as well.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 3
The groups and roles defined in the Cognos namespace can be used to assign access rights to which of the following Framework Manager objects?

A. Query items.
B. Data sources.
C. Relationships.
D. Parameter maps.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 4
What must a modeler consider when modeling for drill-through between multiple data sources?

A. Drill-through values must be cast.
B. Drill-through values must be conformed.
C. Drill-through values must be consolidated.
D. Drill-through values must be identifiers.

Answer: B

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C2090-620 IBM Cognos 10 BI Author

Test information:
Number of questions: 50
Time allowed in minutes: 60
Required passing score: 74%
Languages: English, French, German, Japanese, Spanish Castilian

If your job role includes building reports using relational data models, as well as enhancing, customizing, and managing professional reports, then you may consider adding this certification to your professional portfolio.

The Cognos 10 BI Author exam covers key concepts, technologies, and functionality of the Cognos products. In preparation for an exam, we recommend a combination of training and hands-on experience, and a detailed review of product documentation.

Create reports (14%)
Describe how to create list, crosstab, and repeater reports
Present data graphically

Focus reports (12%)
Describe how to focus reports using filters
Describe how to focus reports using prompts

Enhance reports (44%)
Describe the use of calculations in reports
Identify techniques to enhance layout and content
Describe how to customize reports with conditional formatting
Identify steps to set-up Drill-through Access

Create reports using the query model (18%)
Identify the purpose and components of the query model
Describe how to create the query model
Describe techniques used in the query model that determine how data is aggregated
Identify the effects on the query model(s) of creating a master/detail relationship in the report layout

Setup reports for bursting (6%)
Describe the function of the settings required to distribute reports through bursting

Manage events using agents (6%)
Describe the use of Event Studio in Cognos 8 BI

IBM Certified Designer - Cognos 10 BI Reports

Job Role Description / Target Audience
The professional report author is responsible for building reports using relational data models, as well as enhancing, customizing, and managing professional reports. This individual is new to Report Authoring and will be able to participate as an effective team member.

To achieve the IBM Certified Designer - Cognos 10 BI Reports certification, candidates must possess the skills identified under Recommended Prerequisite Skills, if any, and pass one (1) exam.

Click the test link below to see the overview, objectives, and test preparation recommendations.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Prior to your preparation for this associate-level certification, the following knowledge and skills are recommended and assumed:

Experience using Windows operating system and a web browser
Knowledge of XML

QUESTION 1
In Report Studio, which chart lets the report author plot a third measure?

A. Area
B. Bubble
C. Scatter
D. Progressive Column

Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
An author wants to create a report that displays certain list columns depending on the user's prompt selection. What property of the list column must the author define to create this variable?

A. Text source variable
B. String variable
C. Style variable
D. Render variable

Answer: D

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QUESTION 3
An author creates a report in Report Studio. The report contains a parameter for the Product line query item. The author wants to let users drill through to this report from a variety of reports created using the GO Data Warehouse (query) package. To ensure that this target report contains data for the appropriate products, the author wants to limit the report cells that users can drill through from in source reports. What must the author do when creating the drill-through definition?

A. Set the Product line query item as the target of the drill-through definition.
B. Set the Product line query item as the scope of the drill-through definition.
C. Add a parameter for the Product line query to the drill-through definition.
D. Delete all data items except for the Product line query item from the drill-through definition.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 4
Which statement about the tabular data retrieved by Report Studio queries is true?

A. Tabular data includes a column for each data item in the query. No grouping is applied to the tabular data.
B. Tabular data includes a column for each data item in the query. Grouping applied in the report layout is also applied to the tabular data.
C. Tabular data can only include columns for data items that appear in the layout. No grouping is applied to the tabular data.
D. Tabular data includes a column for each data item that appears in both the query and the layout. Grouping applied in the report layout is also applied to the tabular data.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 5
In Report Studio, what is a baseline?

A. A value in a list report that other values are compared against.
B. A constant value that represents the x-axis in a chart.
C. A constant value drawn on a chart to indicate major divisions in the data.
D. A break point that keeps part of a report stationary while the user scrolls.

Answer: C

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300-180 DCIT Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure

300-180 DCIT
Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Exam Number 300-180 DCIT
Associated Certifications CCNP Data Center
Duration 90 minutes (60-70 questions)
Available Languages English
Register Pearson VUE
This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of data center infrastructure design pertaining to deployment requirements and options for network connectivity, infrastructure, storage network, compute connectivity, and compute resource parameters.
Exam Description
The Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCIT) exam (300-180) is a 90-minute, 60–70 question assessment. This exam is one of the exams associated with the CCNP Data Center Certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of troubleshooting Cisco data center infrastructure including data network protocols, network virtualization and automation, Application Centric Infrastructure (ACI), storage, compute platforms, and management and operations. The course, Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure v6 (DCIT), helps candidates to prepare for this exam because the content is aligned with the exam topics.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
1.0 Troubleshooting Data Network Protocols 26%

1.1 Troubleshoot data center protocols
1.1.a VPC
1.1.b Fabric path
1.1.b [i] Segment ID
1.1.b [ii] Distributed gateway, anycast HSRP
1.1.b [iii] MBGP
1.1.b [iv] vPC+
1.1.c VXLAN
1.1.c [i] Distributed gateway
1.1.c [ii] MBGP EVPN
1.1.c [iii] VPC
1.1.d OTV
1.1.e LISP
1.2 Troubleshoot routing protocols
1.2.a OSPFv2, OSPFv3
1.2.b IS-IS
1.2.c PIM
1.2.d FHRP
1.2.d [i] HSRP
1.2.d [ii] VRRP
1.3 Troubleshoot switching protocols
1.3.a STP
1.3.b LACP/port channel
1.3.c FEX, VNTAG
2.0 Troubleshooting Network Virtualization and Automation 13%

2.1 Troubleshoot logical device separation
2.1.a VDC
2.1.b VRF
2.2 Troubleshoot virtual switching technologies
2.3 Troubleshoot configuration profiles
2.3.a Auto-config
2.3.b Port profiles
2.3.c Configuration synchronization
3.0 Troubleshooting Application Centric Infrastructure 13%

3.1 Troubleshoot fabric discovery process
3.2 Troubleshoot VMM domain integration
3.3 Troubleshoot tenant-based policies
3.3.a EPGs
3.3.a [i] Pathing
3.3.a [ii] Domains
3.3.b Contracts
3.3.b [i] Consumer
3.3.b [ii] Providers
3.3.b [iii] Inter-tenant
3.3.c Private networks
3.3.c [i] Enforced/unenforced
3.3.d Bridge domains
3.3.d [i] Unknown unicast settings
3.3.d [ii] ARP settings
3.3.d [iii] Unicast routing
3.4 Troubleshoot external network integration
3.4.a External bridge network
3.4.b External routed network
3.5 Troubleshoot packet flow
3.5.a Unicast
3.5.b Multicast
3.5.c Broadcast
3.5.d Endpoint database
3.6 Troubleshoot security domains and role mapping
3.6.a AAA
3.6.b RBAC
4.0 Troubleshooting Data Center Storage 17%

4.1 Troubleshoot Fibre Channel
4.1.a Switched fabric initialization
4.1.b Fibre Channel buffer credit starvation
4.1.c FCID
4.2 Troubleshoot Fibre Channel protocol services
4.2.a Zoning
4.2.b FCNS
4.2.c VSAN
4.2.d FSPF
4.3 Troubleshoot FCoE
4.3.a Storage VDC
4.3.b FIP
4.3.c FCoE topologies
4.3.d DCB
4.4 Troubleshoot boot from SAN
4.4.a FCoE / Fibre Channel
4.4.b iSCSI
4.4.c Multipath
4.5 Troubleshoot FCoE/FC interface parameters
4.5.a Dedicated and shared mode
4.5.b Port types
4.5.c Port channels, ISL
4.6 Troubleshoot SAN technologies
4.6.a Fabric redundancy
4.6.b NPV, NPIV, FCF
5.0 Troubleshooting Data Center Compute Platforms 21%

5.1 Troubleshoot Cisco computing platforms
5.1.a Stand-alone computing
5.1.b Chassis/blade
5.1.c Modular / server cartridges
5.1.d Server integration
5.2 Troubleshoot hardware interoperability
5.2.a Converged Network Adapters / port expanders
5.2.b Firmware
5.2.c I/O modules / FEX
5.2.d Fabric interconnects
5.3 Troubleshoot packet flow from server to the fabric
5.4 Troubleshoot server abstraction technologies
5.4.a Service profiles
5.4.a [i] Pools
5.4.a [ii] Policies
5.4.a [ii] 1 Connectivity
5.4.a [ii] 2 Placement policy
5.4.a [ii] 3 Remote boot policies
6.0 Troubleshooting Data Center Management and Operations 10%

6.1 Troubleshoot firmware upgrades, packages, and interoperability
6.2 Troubleshoot integration of centralized management
6.3 Troubleshooting data center LAN and SAN security
6.3.a Troubleshoot fabric binding and port security
6.3.b Troubleshoot AAA and RBAC
6.3.c Troubleshoot first-hop security
6.3.c [i] Dynamic ARP inspections
6.3.c [ii] DHCP snooping
6.3.c [iii] Unicast RPF
6.3.c [iv] MACsec
6.3.c [v] Port security
6.3.d Troubleshoot CoPP
6.3.e Troubleshoot ACLs
6.4 Troubleshoot data center compute security
6.4.a Troubleshoot AAA and RBAC
6.4.b Troubleshoot key management

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QUESTION 1 – (Topic 1)
You have a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect in Fibre Channel end-host mode.
You must check whether all of the Fibre Channel targets are available through the
fabric interconnect at VSAN 200. Which command must you use?
A. show npvflogi-table
B. show flogi-table
C. show flogi database
D. show zoneset active VSAN 200
Answer: A

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QUESTION 2 – (Topic 1)
A customer is troubleshooting QoS in a Cisco UCS domain due to high packet drops in the network.
The customer has configured the vNIC and associated QoS policy, and changed the MTU from 1000 to 1200. Packet drops still exist. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The MTU specified here must be greater than the MTU specified in the associated QoS system class.
If this MTU value is less than the MTU value in the QoS system class, packets may be dropped during data transmission.
B. The MTU specified here must be equal to or less than the MTU specified in the associated QoS system class.
If this MTU value exceeds the MTU value in the QoS system class, packets may be dropped during data transmission.
C. The MTU specified here must be less than the MTU specified in the associated QoS system policy.
If this MTU value exceeds the MTU value in the QoS system policy, packets may be not be dropped during data transmission.
D. The MTU must be optimized and should be changed to fc with the CLI command set mtu fc.
Answer: B

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QUESTION 3 – (Topic 1)
When a service profile is disassociated from a server, what happens to the identity and
connectivity information for the server?
A. It is cleared and set to the default that was setup initially by the first configuration.
B. It is maintained and can be reused.
C. It is reset to factory defaults.
D. It uses master service profile parameters.
E. It takes parameters of other servers in the service profile.
Answer: C

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QUESTION 4 – (Topic 1)
What should you do when you see faults during the initial setup and discovery process?
A. Take note and address the faults.
B. You can safely ignore these faults.
C. Log them and try to address the first one.
D. Reboot until the error messages go away.
Answer: B

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QUESTION 5 – (Topic 1)
How long are the LED states saved after a blade is removed from a Cisco UCS chassis?
A. 1 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 30 minutes
E. 60 minutes
Answer: C

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